In the first part of the Meno, Plato has Socrates argue that a definition of virtue is necessary if he and Meno are going to be able to claim to know anything about it. In the Nichomachean Ethics, Aristotle seems to follow the general procedure that Socrates outlines when, beginning in Chapter 7 of Book I, he seeks to provide an account of the virtue that is at stake in his claim that the human good proves to be activity of the soul in accordance with virtue (1098a18). Explain Aristotles understanding of virtue as it is developed here and later in the Ethics. How does it account for the human good? Is anything else besides virtue in this sense required in order for us to achieve happiness? Is it likely that Aristotles account would satisfy Socrates in the Meno? Why or why not? (Be sure to explain Socrates standard for an adequate definition as set out in the Meno.)
