Aquinas (explicitly) and Aristotle (implicitly) both argue that being alive, or causing life, cannot belong to a body as such because then all bodies would be alive or principles of life in themselves. Do you think this argument is true?

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Aquinas (explicitly) and Aristotle (implicitly) both argue that being alive, or causing life, cannot belong to a body as such because then all bodies would be alive or principles of life in themselves. Do you think this argument is true? Why or why not? (300 words)

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